Re: Ligurian

From: Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
Message: 69497
Date: 2012-05-03

2012/5/1 Tavi <oalexandre@...>
 


If you allow me a little joke, I could think you've got a political agenda like the people who promotes PIE as a kind of new esperanto: http://dnghu.org/


Bhrihskwobhloukstroy: 
   I know them, but I'd deeply revise their phonological and lexical choices. Anyway, their assumption is correct at least like Zamenhof's one. PIE has, over esperanto, the advantage of an enormous amount of parasynonyms and of the non-arbitraryness in the implementation of lexicon (every hereditary lexical item can be regularly back-projected - it doesn't matter whether it has ever really existed or it's an illusion de la reconstruction - and independently recognized and understood by an unlimited number of users)

 
 
> Tavi:
The labiodental result from the series III labial corresponds to Villar's Italoid aka Coromines' Soroptaptic aka DGK's Illyro-Lusitanian.


Bhrihskwobhloukstroy:
   These are the observations I like! A table of concordance between theories and reconstructions
 

> Tavi:
The Celtic word would explain Basque ate 'door' (secondarily also 'mountain pass') with a semantic shift comparable to Latin portus (m.) 'ford', porta (f.) 'door'. However, from the Roncalese forms bede, beri 'portal', we must presume an initial labial *F- instead of *y- in the Celtic protoform *Fa:tu- 'ford'.

This would destroy the etymology proposed by Matasovic and other specialists, but it would point to a relationship with *pent-, although not in the mainstream model (i.e. std sound correspondences).

Bhrihskwobhloukstroy:
   what's "std"?
 


> This is the first time in the History of Linguistics that one can
> *linguistically* demonstrate that PIE has been spoken in a specific
> place. (Note that this doesn't mean that PIE wasn't spoken in other
> regions; it only means that these regions belonged to the PIE Homeland
> - be it the precise Urheimat or not, in any case it was during the PIE
> phase and not later)

 
> Tavi:
Hardly that. It demostrates the inadequacy of the conventional PIE model.

   Maybe you mean an excessive power of it, otherwise I can't understand (and I think nobody can)