Re: The reason for Caesar's obtaining the two Gauls as province

From: Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
Message: 68643
Date: 2012-02-29

2012/2/29, Torsten <tgpedersen@...>:
>
>
>
>> 2012/2/29, Torsten <tgpedersen@...>:
>> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
>> > <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@> wrote:
>> >>
>> >> 2012/2/28, Torsten <tgpedersen@>:
>> >>
>> >> >> > 'calles' has root 'a', thus it is a 'mot populaire' and as
>> >> >> > such not directly descended from PIE by the same route as
>> >> >> > 'regular' Latin. Ie. it is a loan.
>> >> >> >
>> >> >> No.
>> >> >> 1) 'Mot populaire' doesn't mean 'loan'.
>> >> >
>> >> > I think it does.
>> >
>> >> Please demonstrate it
>> >>
>> >
>> > That I think so?
>> > I assume you want me to tell why I prefer that explanation.
>> > It's like this:
>> >
>> > 1. The 'mots populaires' belong to a particlar semantic sphere,
>> > namely that pertaining to lower classes of Roman society. You
>> > would not see that skewed distribution if they had been descended
>> > from PIE the same way as other Latin words.
>> >
>> > 2. Kuhn pointed out that many Latin words with root -a- have
>> > correspondences with root -a- in Germanic.
> http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/30032?var=0&l=1
> http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/36941?var=0&l=1
> http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/36946?var=0&l=1
>> > I am sure those -a-'s can 'explained' as reflexes of -h2-, but I
>> > feel that is contrived. Given the etnic and linguistic environment
>> > at the time of the ethnogensis of Romans and Germani I prefer to
>> > ascribe them to a language or several related languages present
>> > both places at the requisite time.
>> >
>> >> >
>> >> >> 2) There are plenty of sources for Latin /a/
>> >> >> e.g. from */e/ after PIE pure velar */k/
>> >> >
>> >> > I also think pure velars indicate loans.
>> >
>> >> Same as above
>> >
>> > Pure velars tend to occur with -a-. Therefore I suspect they have
>> > the same
>> > origin.
>> >
>
>
> Please add your comments *after* the paragraph you comment on, so that Brian
> or I won't have to do it for you.
>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
> <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:
>>
>> Right guess, I wanted You to demonstrate why You prefer that
>> explanation
> I don't understand your use of 'demonstrate' in that context.
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You wrote that You think 'mot populaire' means 'loan'. Since
'populaire' means 'of the folk' and English 'loan' is 'emprunt' in
French, it follows that 'popular' doesn't coincide with 'loan'. So, if
You nevertheless think that 'mot populaire' means 'loan', I would like
a logical argumentation that in this case 'mot populaire' implies
being a loanword.
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>
>> On one side You are so tough that You want all semantic groups to
>> show *exactly* the same phonemic distribution, although one can
>> always group words with one phoneme and then affirm that such
>> phoneme characterizes their prevailing meaning ('populaire' is very
>> vague for the complex of Latin words with /a/ of non-laryngeal
>> origin: cacumen calamitas calare calidus callis calx cancer candere
>> cardo carina carinare caro carpere carpinus carrere caterua scabere
>> scalpere scamnum scandere scatere; auillus caudex cauere cauilla
>> cauos fauere fauila fauis(s)ae Fauonius Faui fauos fraus laus lauere
>> pauere rauos; malleus malus manere manus marcere mare margo maritus
>> mateola; canis fax quaerere qualum/s quatere squalus suasum uacca
>> uagus ualgus ualuae uas uastus; flagrare frangere gradior labra lac
>> magnus nassa trabs; fraces lapis latus patere sacena aries gramen
>> gramiae trahere faba; castrare farcire farnus fastigium ianitrices
>> mala nancire pando panus passer quattuor sarcire sarire spargere
>> uannus);
>> You are quite severe when You define 'contrived' the explanations
>> through *h2 (but that's simply Your "feeling", as You write);
>
> Yes. Thus I don't 'define' it as contrived.
>
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OK You are quite severe when You feel that the explanations
through *h2 are 'contrived'

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>
>> on the other side You are so confident as to postulate whole
>> languages (never attested as such) in the ethnogesis of Romans and
>> Germani (which languages?)
>
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> Venetic. Possibly Dacian/Thracian.
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Do You have any proof of the presence of Venetic and possibly
Dacian or Thracian in the Proto-Germanic Homeland?
If yes, which one?
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>
>> You can be skeptical about laryngeal etymologies, but then You
>> must be even more skeptical about substrates;
>
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> No.
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Aha. Do You think then that IE needs to be more justified than
everything else? More than conjectural substrates?
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>
>
>> otherwise You can postulate substrates, but a fortiori You have
>> to accept laryngeal and other hereditary explanations
>
> No.
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Maybe You like strong adfirmations, but Your adfirmations are in
some cases too poorly argumented.
So, please, why should substrates have privileges that hereditary
explanations don't have? Wouldn't it be better if we used one and the
same criterion for all etymologies?

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>
>
>> even if these make redundant substrate hypotheses
>
> They don't.
>
>
>
> Torsten
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Laryngeal etymologies can be measured. They can be correct at
phonological, lexical, and morphological level or not. If they are
correct, they reach the best linguistic standard.
Documented substrates can offer an alternative. Of course
substrate etymologies must be correct as well. If so, they are at the
same level of correct hereditary etymologies.
Not documented substrates are hypothetical. They can indeed be
postulated, especially if there aren't hereditary etymologies. If, on
the contrary, there are correct hereditary etymologies, substrate
etymologies (from not documented substrates) are praeter necessitatem