Re: German loans in Polish

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Torsten" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" <richard.wordingham@> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Torsten" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> > > One of those oldest loans listed by Kästner is the Christian
> > > term msza "mess", which is Pan-Slavic.
> >
> > > <snip>
> >
> > > The thing that puzzles me is: how would Slavs get the idea to
> > > end-stress a word borrowed from a language with generalized
> > > initial stress?
> >
> > Wouldn't the yer have been lost regardless of its original stress?
> >
>
> According to
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Havl%C3%ADk%27s_law
> yes. Of course you can't stress a non-existent vowel, but I haven't
> seen stress-shift as a consequence of Havlík described anywhere.
> Does anybody know?
>

I tried to figure out what Miguel thought about it
On *-a: :
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/47648
'It was stressed when it was stressed, and unstressed when it
was unstressed'

Also:
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/47648
'In Balto-Slavic, two things happened that caused nom. and
acc. stress to diverge. In the first place, a posttonic long
vowel (lengthened grade, not two contracted vowels or a
vowel + laryngeal) attracted the stress. Secondly, syllabic
resonants developed into diphthongs R. > iR (uR).'

which doesn't apply here, since it's *-a: < *-ax (*-ah2)


Torsten