Re: Perfect passive participle

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "cafaristeir" <cafaristeir@...> wrote:

>


> But, based on Greek and Sanskrit, they give *derk^etò- = "visible"
> , from *derk^ = to glimpse, see.
> But, if this were really a verbal adjective, I realised we should have gotten : *drk^tòs, i.e. with zero-grade and no thematic vowel.
>
> Then, my idea is that *derk^etòs might be a "subjunctive perfect medio-passive particle", = "which may have been glimpsed" = "glimpsable".
>

That doesn't work. -eto- is a separate affix from -to-, and the vowel of the verb root is different, too. In my reconstruction, they even have separate -t- (alveolar vs dental). It is well-preserved in Celtic as a present participle '-ing' .

> You remember that the mark of the subjunctive mode (whose meaning is more or less like the English modal verb "may") in PIE is the presence in all cases of the thematic vowel : e/o.
>

The semantics and grammar don't make sense. -e- is common in many places from many origins in PIE.

> As far as I remember (but I could not check them all), most Old Greek verbal adjectives with the meaning "-ble" display a thematic vowel before the final "-tos".
>

The older ones (with cognates in other IE) are without -e-.