> --- On Fri, 7/1/11, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
>
> marg- is "death" in Persian/Farsi as in Marg-ba Amrika,or whoever
> they have the hate on. So it looks Iranian enough but battle cries
> can be borrowed
>
> GK: Any explanation for the "hyperization" -h i.o. -g? OK in
> Iranic dialects or might this tell us something about that of
> the "Ticenses"?
> Slavic does a pretty good job of alternating between /g/ and /h/
> e.g. Russian
> govno vs. Ukrainian hivno (vel sim).
> Germanic has /g/ where Italic has /h/
> Another answer could be the language of the person who wrote it
> down, it may have influenced what was written
A third answer would postulate, noting that the Slavic g > h seems to be an area thing: Czech, Slovak, Belarussian, Ukranian, southern Russian AFAIK,
****GK: Correct me if I'm wrong, but wasn't this areal "softening" of the G->H a development of the late 1rst millennium/early 2nd millennium CE? In other words, Old (undifferentiated) Slavic retained the hard G?****
that the Iranian languages of the same area experienced the same transition?
****GK: But if the above is correct, then is 359 not too early? BTW anything similar in Ossetic?****
Fourth: the war cry 'marga!' was borrowed by Slavic and -> 'marha!', along with the rest of the vocabulary in the relevant Slavic languages (before being replaced by 'ura!' (<- Turkish?).
****GK: And "slava!" in some others. But again, there is the matter of the time frame of the g->h switch in areal Slavic...
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