Re: IE finite verb forms as non-finite ones

>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@> wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > Agreed. Latin does often seem odd form the perspective of modern
> > Western European languages with its lack of clause markers and
> > other things but (thinking via Spanish) I'm reading ascribam as a
> > subjunctive or something similar
> >
>
> Yes. But the Spanish equivalent has a 'que', clearly marking the
> object of the verb as a dependent phrase.
>
> Torsten
>
> ***R And you're letting the lack of a clause marker throw a wrench
> into your interpretation. Latin seems to drop markers right and left
> --go look at a collection of Latin mottoes, until you figure out
> that clause markers are missing many of them don't make sense. It's
> part and parcel of the literary style.

Sometimes they're there, sometimes they're not. Standard interpretation says they're dropped, I say they're added.

> Where is the "must" in Carthago delenda est?

That Carthage to-be-deleted is? Where would you put that 'must'?

> Latin is not Spanish nor Vulgar Latin and it seems as if you're
> trying to read it as such.

No, I was trying to read the Latin sentence as my idea of PIE.

> So much for my year of Latin in one semester of summer school 25
> years ago. BTW: you'll notice that the motto style even carries over
> into English and Scots if you look at family mottoes --one of the my
> favorites "Touch not the Cat but a glove" from one of the Clan
> Chattan branches.

??


Torsten