Re: 'dyeus' chronology

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@...> wrote:

> My pronounciation is not modern. If you are suggesting this word was pronounced with an "m" sound earlier which later changed to "n" then please provide some evidence.

The sandhi rules associate /m/ and /M/. /m/ cannot occur at the end of a sentence - one must have /M/ instead. /n/ and /G/ can occur at the end of a sentence.

There is some evidence in SE Asian traditions using anusvara for /m/ rather than /G/ in some contexts - universally in the case of word-final anusvara in the Burmese pronunciation of Pali.

Richard.

So, what is the /M/ sound? Is it a bilabial velarized /MG/ as in Spanish San Félix /saMGfeliks? or a marker indicating that the previous vowel is nasalized? or both?