Re: Grammatical Gender

I read it and while it provides an entirely satisfactory explanation for the origin of feminine suffixes (<collectives), I'm still left wondering why *sto:laz should be masculine but *skipam should be neuter. They're both inanimate and both made by human beings. Why should there be a gender difference?

Andy

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Etherman23" <etherman23@...> wrote:
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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "andythewiros" <anjarrette@> wrote:
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> > Forgive me if I have earlier posted a like message.
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> > I would like to know whether there exists any treatise, essay, book, etc. that offers a plausible explanation for the origin of grammatical gender in the Indo-European languages.
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> > Can anyone help me?
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> You can try:
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> http://books.google.com/books?id=tO9YAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA5&dq=noun+gender+brugmann&hl=en&ei=jCteTIjEBoOBlAeK0OiZCA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q&f=false
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