Peter writes:
>The logic might just as easily be the
>other way round. It is quite common for a foreign word or name or phrase,
>which of course has no transparent meaning in a different language, to be
>borrowed in a form that does produce meaning in the new language. I think my
>favourite example is “break a leg”, the wish that actors say to
>each other. It is (allegedly) based on a Yiddish phrase that means “good
>luck”. So we can’t use the etymological transparency of Alexander
>to prove anything.
>Peter
Thanks for your response, Peter.
You're right, of course, but which do you consider the most likely option? Greek > Anatolian, Greek < Anatolian or another source > both Greek & Anatolian?
I'd like to know:
1) Are there any known Greek-to-Anatolian loanwords?
2) If so, what changes did they undergo? If Aleksandros were a loanword from Greek, what processes would it have to undergo (especially with respect to the phonotactic rules of the Anatolian languages)?
3) If we suppose that the Greek word < PIE, what would the (hypothetical) independent (parallel) formation in Anatolian look like?
4) Is Alaksandos etymologizable solely on the basis of Anatolian?
5) If not, what are the theories and can anyone give me the references, please?
Many thanks for any comments and advice!
Mirka