Re: [SPAM] [SPAM] [SPAM] [tied] Re: Latin /a/ after labials, IE *mor

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 64181
Date: 2009-06-13

On 2009-06-13 17:16, alexandru_mg3 wrote:

> THE ANSWER IS SIMPLE:
> - BECAUSE THEY WERE RESHAPED TO -a:re:
> ara:re 'for sure' I would say..
> cala:re 'for sure' too (we have Umbrian karetu)
> etc...
>
> So we have many RESHAPINGS HERE....

This is just another red herring. We are not discussing the origin of
the first conjugation but the form of <moneo:/mone:re>. You haven't
shown even one single case in which a causative/iterative in *-h2- +
-eje/o- ends up in the second conjugation in Latin. Shall I multiply
counterexamples? We have *woth2-aje/o- > OLat. voto: > CLat.
veto:/vetui. Of course I realise that you are immune to argumentation
and since no-one else seems to be interested in this thread, I rest my
case here. EOT for the second and last time.

Piotr