Re: long o: Nominative

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "dubbelax" <dubbelax@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "dgkilday57" <dgkilday57@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > Doric does have <po:s>. Attic <pous> has probably been remodeled after the participle <didous>.

But why? <didous> would have inflected forms <didont-> while <pous> has inflected forms <pod->. Where does the analogy come in? Also, if other dialects have <odo:n> for Attic <odous>, do the other dialects have <dido:n> where Attic has <didous>? Shouldn't they?

Andrew