From: bmscotttg
Message: 62331
Date: 2009-01-01
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "bmscotttg" <BMScott@> wrote:Proto-World is normally taken to be the most recent common ancestor
>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "bmscotttg" <BMScott@> wrote:
>>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
>>>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "bmscotttg" <BMScott@> wrote:
>>>>>> PIE as Proto-World?! Even Ruhlen has more sense than that.
>>>>> I didn't say PIE was the original language, or the source of
>>>>> all languages ever spoken.
>>>> You did, however, say that it was the source of all known
>>>> languages, which is what is normally meant by 'Proto-World'.
>>> Not at all. There may be languages spoken that haven't been
>>> discovered or examined by linguists, or not described at all
>>> (or well enough for correct classification), and some
>>> undeciphered languages obviously could be non-PIE.
>> Irrelevant. Your statement, which for some reason you
>> conveniently erased from this response, was:
>>>>>>> All known languages not currently classified as IE are
>>>>>>> actually from one branch of IE: Indo-Iranian.
>> From which it obviously follows that all known languages are
>> either currently classified as IE or in fact II.
> Yes.
>> Unless you
>> care to maintain that some languages now classified as IE in
>> fact are not IE, you very clearly *are* claiming that all
>> known languages are IE. Which is lunacy.
> No, I said it and it's true. What are you objecting to about
> my response? I said there could be unknown languages that were
> non-IE, etc., so PIE wouldn't equal "Proto-World" if there were.
> Your claim of my theory meaning there would beIt is, by the definition of PW with which I'm most familiar.
> an equivalency between PIE and PW is not so,
> and you haven't given any reason for your apparent (continued)I did. You ignored it. From
> misunderstanding.