Re: Re[6]: [tied] Re: [pieml] Labiovelars versus Palatals + Labiovel

--- On Sun, 11/2/08, Brian M. Scott <BMScott@...> wrote:

> From: Brian M. Scott <BMScott@...>
> Subject: Re[6]: [tied] Re: [pieml] Labiovelars versus Palatals + Labiovelar Approximant
> To: "Rick McCallister" <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Date: Sunday, November 2, 2008, 12:10 PM
> At 11:56:14 AM on Sunday, November 2, 2008, Rick McCallister
> wrote:
>
> > --- On Sun, 11/2/08, G&P
> <G.and.P@...> wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> >> More significantly for me, some linguists won’t
> accept
> >> voiceless [W] as a phoneme, but in my dialect it
> >> undeniably is.
>
> > Can you give an example?

ahhh, I perceived /W/ more as /hw/, but given that /hl/ is voiceless /L/, it's the same thing

>
> wail/whale
> witch/which
> wight/white
> wicker/whicker
> wen/when
> win/whin
> way/whey

I also use that sound. My students misponounce <Juan> as /wan^/ (American /n/) and I have to prompt by asking them what's the difference between Charles Windsor and Moby Dick --the Prince of Wales vs. the Prince of Whales.

The sound is pretty much dead for anyone under 40 in the US, also dead here in Delaware

> All are [w]/[W] for me, and probably for Peter as well.
> But
> this distinction is vanishing in the U.S. and largely gone
> in England, though I believe that it's still healthy in
> Scotland.
>

Except for fair there are fite fulpies