From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 60868
Date: 2008-10-13
----- Original Message -----
From: "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...>
>> If I understood your theory about Venetic,
>> this languagee is supposed to have occupied much of Central Europe
>> _before_ Italic+Celtic intruded in that area.
>> Is that right ?
>
>
> Acc. to Okulicz Germanic from the West and Baltic and Slavic from the
> East replaced the speech of the Veneti and Aestii (similar to each
> other) which was once a neighbor to Italic. The idea that Adriatic
> Venetic was part of that is from a fanciful book: Joz^ef S^avli/Matej
> Bor, Unsere Vorfahren die Veneter (Engl. transl.: "Veneti - First
> Builders of European Community"), except they think the Veneti were Slavs.
> Krahe pointed out related pairs of river names on Aestic and Adriatic
> Veneti territory.
>
> Torsten
========
I still have much trouble understanding the time framework of all that
and the scenario this entails from PIE split onward.
What happened between the PIE split (and when did it split) and Venetic in
that area ?
According to that scenario.
Could you please explain this scenario ?
Arnaud
========