Re: Present participle

>
> Oh, I see. But another question I have is, if a root is encountered
> only in Italic, Germanic, and Slavic, does that mean we should
> probably reject it as being from PIE? I personally feel that that is
> being rather harsh, especially when it is so easy for languages to
> lose items of vocabulary (cf. Modern English vs. Old English
> especially, but also many modern European languages compared with
> their ancestors). Is there another reason why you do not favour (a
> deliberate choice of word here) the idea of a PIE root *ghow- (etc.)
> besides the fact that if it occurred, it is only corroborated in
> Italic, Germanic, and Slavic?

Not 'should'. The fact that a particular IE word is encountered only
in eg. Europe might make one suspect the word is substrate, but it's
no proof. It takes more than that.


Torsten