From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 60781
Date: 2008-10-10
> From: "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>Of course I know that. But in this case I'm talking about
>>> I was suggesting that these writings probably reflect
>>> the disapperance of -h-, There is no reason to suppose
>>> that -h- is represented by either -c- or -s- or -i-.
>>> Cnict is *knit the same way French dict stands for *dit
>>> with no real -c-. Cnist is *knit the same way French
>>> beste stands for *bete with no real -s-. etc. Therefore
>>> relevant.
>> But completely wrong, since the word in question isn't
>> French.
> No,
> English spelling owes much to French writing.
> out with Middle English ou = French ou is an obviousBut not particularly relevant, since I'm talking about early
> example.
>>> These are just awkward spellings of *knit with no -h-.Loss of /x/ in this position didn't begin until the 14th
>> No, they're attempts to represent a sound that wasn't
>> present in OFr at the time and therefore had no standard
>> representation. The word being recorded was late OE and
>> early ME /knixt/; /k/ and /s/ were two of the closer
>> possible approximations.
> No, I disagree.
> There was no -h-.
> You have not given any dates for these forms.Because anyone with the knowledge to answer my questions
> They must be rather late, because they reflect a ratherOn the contrary, it's easy to find such types shortly after
> advanced phonetic stage for both French and English.