From: kishore patnaik
Message: 60729
Date: 2008-10-09
> Again, you instinctively assume that wider IE distribution means older
> connotation. Am I right? This is what I precisely oppose.
Not "instinctively". This is what logic dictates. If Varuna is so very
ancient, what happened to him in the non-Indo-Iranian traditions?
why should he be present in Non IIr at all? in fact, why should be present in non Indic scenario? If OIT is the truth, then he has no business to be present anywhere except in India.
To start with, try to condemn my arguments that a) Varuna is old b) he had prominence and then a decline c) he is not present anywhere except india (and of course, Mitanni)
My theorem of OIT rests on these premises, soundly presented, with references. Fransesco knows better than to condemn these three premises.
You're trying to shift the burden of the proof, which lies squarely on
> Agreed that I am not a scholar and as earlier it is said, being a layman
> does not warrant me to shoot off my ideas. Yet, I think what I say
> precisely becoming true - there is no independent proof to say that a
> word of wider IE distribution (here, Zeus) is older than the pure Indic
> word (Varuna).
your shoulders, not mine. The wide distribution of the cognates of
*dje:us (as well as the characteristic set phrase *djeu *p&2ter 'O
Father Sky') allows us to assume a PIE date for the word. Where is such
evidence in the case of Varuna?
Piotr
No. I have already given my premises, proof and references. Now it is upto you to prove I am wrong. Until then, I remain proved.
On the other hand, you have not given any proof (atleast give the basics why it is assumed, since I agree I am ignorant) to your instict that wider distribution in PIE means an older word.
After 5000 years, if they look at the languages, word " Bus" (there is no Indian equivalent word for this) may be more widely publicised than Varuna By your theorem, bus becomes older than Varuna.
kishore patnaik