From: tgpedersen
Message: 60524
Date: 2008-09-30
>No, people realized cereals could be eaten only several millenia after
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Andrew Jarrette" <anjarrette@...>
> >> -
> >> The list was intended to be seen as evidence for borrowing.
> >> Otherwise one would be claiming that people knew agriculture at
> >> the time of the earliest language splits, which is obviously not
> >> true.
> >> Torsten
> =======
> I suppose people realized cereals could be eaten before agriculture
> came into being.
> Arnaud
> ============
> > I see. By "earliest language splits" are you referring to theNot yours.
> > splits that led to the various branches of IE, or are you
> > referring to a possible split that led to IE on one hand and
> > Semitic (and maybe Kartvelian, Uralic, Yeniseian, etc.) on the
> > other? I'm still a little confused: if agriculture in the
> > Fertile Crescent began around 9500 BC according to Wiki, then you
> > are saying that the split between IE and Semitic/etc. occurred
> > before this?
> =========
> Personally, I think the PIE/Semitic split happened around -25000,
> if you believe in glottochronology.
> Arnaud
> ===========
> > And if you _are_Textbook stuff.
> > referring to the intra-IE splits, how early did these splits
> > occur?
> > And when did Indo-Europeans acquire agriculture? Who taught it to
> > them? And what people are the source of the common agricultural
> > vocabulary in (at least western) IE? Is it the Semites? Perhaps
> > there is a chronology of language development and agricultural
> > development on the Internet?
> ========
> Anatolian Indo-Europeans contributed to the creation of agriculture
> in Anatolia,
> and later on, from -6500 onward, agriculture spread to other
> Indo-europeans populations in Eastern Europe,
> and then passed to all of them, etc.
> Arnaud
> ===========