From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 60418
Date: 2008-09-27
>before the
> But do you (Arnaud) still say that PIE had no *-tl- sequences in any
> words, that they always > *-tr-?
> AJ
>
> =======
> I have not changed my mind.
>
> All these examples have the peculiarity of having a laryngeal
> suffix.I don't understand how this would mean that PIE was neolithic. And
> s-neH1-t-
> buH2-t-
> arH3-t
> But this may not have any importance.
>
> I also disagree that arklas is traceable to PIE.
> this would mean that PIE was neolithic,
> something I disagree with.
>allophonic,
> I suppose the alternation -tel-/-tr- which I consider was once
> became allomorphic in a second time.I think you mean "and out of *-tr-* you can recreate -ter-/tr-", and
> So out of -tel- you can recreate -tel-/-tl-
> and out of -ter- you can recreate -ter-/tr-
>the
> The only thing that really proves something is that
> Semitic *tel is reflected by PIE treyes "three".
> there is not a single word in Indo-European that is **tl- "three".
> This is a cognate, not a word that can be created about any time in
> history of each Indo-European language.Makes sense to me; are any other Cybalist members convinced?
>