Icelandic "ö"

From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 59641
Date: 2008-07-27

This is a question that has always dogged me.  I know that it is actually more appropriate for the phonetics group that exists in Yahoo groups, but I don't know the proper name or e-mail address of that group, so I thought I would mention it here:

Icelandic "ö" pronounced [œ] derives from Old Norse <o¿> which itself was derived from *a followed by *u.  Presumably the Old Norse <o¿> was a low back rounded sound.  My question is why (or how) did this sound evolve to [œ] when original <o> did not?  It is paralleled by the change in Icelandic of *[U] to [Y].  One would expect that the next lower sound, [O], would also be fronted to [œ], but it did not participate in this change.  Instead, the sound even lower than that was fronted and raised a bit.  This change does not make sense to me.  I think one would expect that [O] would be fronted to [œ] (as has partially occurred, to a slight degree, in French)  just as [U] was fronted to [Y] (and then perhaps <o¿> might move up to [O]).  Why was [O] exempt from this shift in Icelandic, but the lower sound <o¿> was not?  My feeling is that perhaps <o¿> was not any lower than <o>?  If so, what was the actual sound of Old Norse <o¿> = Icelanic <ö>?

Andrew