From: gprosti
Message: 59626
Date: 2008-07-24
>What I'm wondering is: what empirical evidence is this gradient of
> On 2008-07-23 03:22, gprosti wrote:
>
> > A general methodological question: what criteria do you think should
> > be used to distinguish a probable semantic change from an improbable
> > one? Is it possible that comparative linguistics has not yet developed
> > any such criteria?
>
> If you want formal criteria that work infallibly, I don't think it's
> possible to lay them down. Of course there is a gradient of
> plausibility, from what is the _most_ probable (meaning no change at
> all, e.g. 'wolf' > 'wolf'), to what may be likely under certain
> circumstances (a slight shift of meaning, e.g. 'wolf' > 'jackal', in a
> country where jackals predominate),
> involve the figurative use of words, fossilised metaphors, unexpected
> associations, unpredictable misunderstandings etc. That's how the human
> mind works. Still, the more complex change you posit, the more
> justification should be given, preferably indicating the particular
> circumstances responsible for it, parallel examples from other
> languages, etc. The only thing that doesn't require an explanation is
> semantic continuity.
>
> Piotr
>