From: Anders R. Joergensen
Message: 59364
Date: 2008-06-21
>Odr,
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Anders R. Joergensen"
> <ollga_loudec@> wrote:
>
> > However, I don't see any reason why the Brit. verbal stem *pex-
> > should no have been borrowed directly from Latin.
> >
> > A nice little Latin derivational system was borrowed by British
> > Celtic, namely *pex- 'to sin' (pecca:re), *pexOd 'a sin'
> > (pecca:tu-), *pexOdr, *pexadyr a sinner' (pecca:tor,
> > pecca(:)to:rem). While the reflexes of the agent noun suffix *-
> > *-adyr became somewhat productive in W, this did not happen inYes, that seems by far the most straightforward solution.
> > SWBrit., which is why a back-formation (noun -> verb) seems
> > unlikely.
>
>
> Erh, you see no reason why it shouldn't have happened, and it
> happened? I'm confused. Was the verb stem borrowed as such or not?
> you have other examples of Latin verb stems being borrowed byInsular
> Celtic?Sure, how about Brit. *pask- 'to feed, to pasture' (Latin present
>Latin,
> Gol/a,b has
> Lat. pa:sto:r // OCS pastyrI "shepherd"
> *rod-tro- (Latin rostrum) // PSlav. rydlo "beak"
> Apparently Slavic loans these words from a language similar to
> but with /o:/ > /u:/. It would seem the Welsh /y/ in the agenssuffix
> -adyr came that way too?What I wrote above as *y (in lack of barred "u" on the keyboard)
>