From: etherman23
Message: 58917
Date: 2008-05-29
>The change of voiceless stop to voiced stop is pretty common. So I
> On 2008-05-28 03:58, etherman23 wrote:
>
> > What's the objection to reinterpreting voiced aspirates as voiceless
> > aspirates? It would be typologically natural. It fits with Greek,
> > which preserves many phonological features of PIE. I-Ir simply added
> > the feature of voicing. The Proto-Italic changes make more sense
> > starting from voiceless aspirates. In Tocharian and Proto-Anatolian
> > the feature of aspiration was simply lost. In Germanic and Armenian
> > they became voiced, perhaps setting of a chain shift (Grimm's Law). In
> > the other languages they simply merged with the existing voiced stops.
>
> Aye, there's the rub. How do voiceless aspirates "simply merge" with
> voiced stops?
> And why should they have been so prone to voicing that weBecause lenition is a common change. One might just as well ask why
> find their unambiguously voiced reflexes in IIr., BSl., Celt., Gmc.,
> Arm. and Alb.?
> Also, if there's any truth in Olsen's preaspirationI'm afraid I'm not familiar with his arguments.However,I would assume
> hypothesis, PIE allophonic *[tH] and *dH give different reflexes at
> least in Indo-Iranian.