Re: a discussion on OIT

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "jsjonesmiami" <jsjonesmiami@...> wrote:

>
>
> I don't think there's any automatic positive correlation between
> linguistic conservatism and geographic continuity. In fact, some
> linguists have suggested that the opposite occurs, based on dialect
> distribution of colonial languages (and maybe some other things).
>
> >
> I don't think (A) is very tenable, regardless of the homeland's
> location, but it would cause problems for the Indian homeland
> hypothesis, in that the centum languages would have to all leave in a
> single group, while Germanic has much in common with Balto-Slavic and
> Greek with Indo_Iranian.
>
> For (B) and (C), I don't see anything relevent to the question,
> although I'll mention that I don't see the earmarks of unidirectional
> expansion either.
>

I concede that my reasoning may have been erroneous. I'm not as
knowledgeable as most of the other regular contributors and therefore
may tend to put forth knee-jerk reactive statements based on limited
knowledge and limited consideration, whose logic, substantiability, or
relevance may be questionable. I will try to censor such responses as
I'm aware that it doesn't really belong at this level of discussion.

Andrew