Re: a discussion on OIT

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "koenraad_elst" <koenraad.elst@...>
wrote:

>
> -Since India was obviously an emigration country, it is perfectly
> likely that more Indo-Aryan groups went westward and ended up
> elsewhere. Without committing myself to these hypotheses, I would
> think this could explain the presence of Indo-Aryan in the Pontic
> region (Sindoi) and, as I learned on this list, in Mordvin and other
> Uralic languages.
>

> Aryan Invasion diehards could still argue that the Aryans had invaded
> from the west in 5000 BC or so and then in the RV period moved
> westward again. But that would be a scenario radically different
> from the AIT as we know it. And so far it has no evidence to support
> it.
>
>

Do you believe that the PIE homeland was in India? In my view, what
you have presented in this posting suggests that one might as well
take India to be the homeland of PIE. Would this be supported by
linguistic, archaeological, and especially genetic evidence?

_______

Pardon me if what I have said above is exactly what the OIT is all
about. I was operating under the impression that OIT only applied to
the origin of Indo-Aryan and the Mitanni. My apologies if I have been
wrong.

Andrew