From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 58270
Date: 2008-05-02
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Yes I believe all languages ultimately do go back to
Africa but, as I say, that's part of my belief in the
unity of mankind and not something I have the
wherewithal to prove. Give the recent revelations
about the small population of humans in Africa and the
split between Khoi-San and non-Khoi-San peoples, I
would guess--not pronounce-- that language arose
before the split and that Khoi-San was the first group
to split from the main body of languages. After that,
your guess is as good as mine--------------In researching "Khoi-San" since I know nothing of this genetic and linguistic classification, I found the following statement about the extinct language Damin of Australia which also uses clicks like Khoi-San: "Damin is an invented ritual language, and has nothing to do with Khoisan." If you're wondering why I am quoting this, it's because of the first part of the quote, that it is known to be an invented language. To me, this raises the question: Is not all language ultimately invented? I think language must have originated in deliberate, premeditated manipulation of speech sounds for the purpose of communication, i.e. was invented, like Damin. I don't think it was just a natural automatic act like blinking or eating. I think it was more akin to cooking, where choices are made as to the product of the action. Arbitrary, but deliberate. Is language not an invention? Is it an automatic natural act? Or are these unnecessary questions?
Andrew____________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _
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