--- mkelkar2003 <
swatimkelkar@...> wrote:
> > Brian
> >
> Indo-Aryan' refers to a *family* of languages. Of
> course
> > this family has representatives from different
> periods.
>
> That is not how the family tree model works. Every
> stage is given a
> new name. For example, IIr branches into Indo-Aryan
> and Ir. If there
> was an earlier stage of IA it must be given a
> different name.
>
> If an argument is advanced that aika>eka then they
> BOTH cannot be from
> the same language or even the same family of
> langauges.
>
> M. Kelkar
>
Kelkawallah:
I can't figure out if you're hopelessly confused or a
demon sent to ineptly try to confuse everyone else.
Eka obviously is from aika and they can very well
represent 2 diachronic or even synchronic forms in the
same language. See English ane > a, an, ane (dialect),
one.
My doubt was whether or not Indic was another word for
Indo-Aryan or a term only reserved for non-Dardic IA
from the subcontinent. You obfuscated the whole issue
and my question did not get answered.
Again the situation of Indo-Iranian:
Step One: Indo-Iranian is a single language on the
steppes of Eurasia
Step Two: Indo-Iranian divides into
Indo-Aryan,
Nuristani
and Iranian
Step Three: Indo-Aryan divides into
Steppe IA as seen in Black Sea remnants of IA,
possibly in IA adstrate in Mitanni (if it's the result
of a group moving down from Central Asia);
Iranian IA (seen in substrate words in Persian
--probably the same thing as steppe IA);
Dardic (unless it broke off earlier);
and non-Dardic Subcontinent IA
Step Four: non-Dardic Subcontinent IA moves through
Afghanistan into Punjab and into India
We begin to see steppe IA adstrate words in written
Mitanni
Now do you get it?
____________________________________________________________________________________
Be a better friend, newshound, and
know-it-all with Yahoo! Mobile. Try it now.
http://mobile.yahoo.com/;_ylt=Ahu06i62sR8HDtDypao8Wcj9tAcJ