From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 57733
Date: 2008-04-20
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"[...]
> <BMScott@...> wrote:
>> I expect that Sean was doubting that the <-t> of <salt>Seems unlikely. The noun, adjective, and verb all have a
>> is the neuter NA singular ending, not that the latter is
>> <-t>. And as Jouppe and I have already pointed out, the
>> doubt is clearly justified, since all forms of the
>> adjective have the <t> (e.g., indef. sing. nom. masc.
>> <saltr>, fem. <sölt>).
> Of course it does. The question is whether the adjective
> was generalized from the indef. n. n./a. sg. form.