Re: Ban all non academic discussions

----- Original Message -----
From: "Kishore patnaik" <kishorepatnaik09@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Saturday, April 19, 2008 6:25 PM
Subject: [Courrier indésirable] [tied] Re: Ban all non academic discussions


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>
>> Since when do you think Sanscrit or Vedic Sanscrit has been spoken,
>> under the phonetic and morphology form that we know it to be ?
>> Before Present - 3000, - 4000, - 5000, more,
> >
>> Arnaud



>Some people would want the Vedic sanskrit to be placed in post Mitanni
>days, that will make it hardly 3200 year old but they neglect that the
>sanskrit words used by Mitannis (panza, satta etc) used both pre and
>post vedic sanskrit words- if panza is pre vedic, then certainly Satta
>is post vedic.
>In any case, this goes to preclude the role of Ir.
>Kishore patnaik
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I think you are compounding two questions together.
Q1. When and where was Rg Veda composed and hence when and where was Vedic
Sanscrit spoken ?
Q2. What do the indo-iranian-looking words in Mittani texts learn us about
Indo-iranian ?

I'm not sure we can preclude Iranian or early Iranian as a source of Mittani
"Aryanoid" ?
Or what are the reasons we can do that ?

Do you accept -4000 BP as the earliest datation possible for Sanscrit ?

Arnaud

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