From: david_russell_watson
Message: 57273
Date: 2008-04-14
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "fournet.arnaud"<fournet.arnaud@...> wrote:
>What would 'k(^)W' represent? Uppercase 'w' represents
> > In my opinion,
> > *k^ is regular
> > *k seems to be rare, or related to post-PIE creations or
> > suffixations.
> > *kw should be the same as *k+*w
> >
> > *k^w is according to my proposal the phonotactic result of
> > any velar (k, g, gh) followed by H1. This contacts created
> > intensive phonemes in Eastern and Central PIE, which possibly
> > were pronounced *[k:w] (long stop with delayed release) which
> > is treated like k^+w.
>
> You have no basis for that opinion.
>
> Although a few *k(^)W-
> seem to be derived from *k(^) = *w,You mean *k(^) + *w. Don't you?
> the far greater number derive from a phoneme that wasWhat makes you imagine so? There's no evidence of the
> probably realized as [x]/[รง].
> When any *H is added to this phoneme, the result is *k(^)Hw-,Now you switch to lowercase for your 'w', which, using
> which was subsequently resolved to *k(^)W-.Now you return again to using uppercase 'w', which would
> As for examples, how can counterexamples be meaningfully offeredThat's correct. Please do provide examples to back your
> when no examples have been provided?