From: alexandru_mg3
Message: 55398
Date: 2008-03-17
>Some help for Arnaud:
> On Sun, 16 Mar 2008 21:34:16 +0100, "fournet.arnaud"
> <fournet.arnaud@...> wrote:
>
> >
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: Brian M. Scott
> >
> >
> >The accent in Greek was retracted to the _first_ syllable,
> >under the influence of the vocative (thúgater), or the
> >word for mother (mé:te:r), or both.
> >
> >By the law of limitation, *thúgate:r becomes thugáte:r.
> >
> >=================
> >
> >What is the reason why
> >these morphologically connected words
> >do not share the same accent position ?
> >
> >meHtér
> >p°tér
> >dhugHtér
> >bhréHter
> >daiwér
> >yénHter
> >gémHter
> >swés(t)or
>
> The word *méh2te:r was surely barytone. *daiwé:r and
> *swéso:r are different formations.
>
> The reason why the accent positions differ is the same
> reason why we have acrostatic, proterodynamic,
> hysterodynamic and amphidynamic nouns in PIE in general.
>
> Roughly, the accent was originally on the last syllable in=======================
> root nouns (N **pá:d-z, A **pá:d-m, G **pa:d-ás, DL
> **pa:d-á(i), IAb **pa:d-át "foot"), in compound nouns it
> could be on the root
> Miguel Carrasquer VidalNot in compound: "the compounds shows us a different ancient paradigm
> miguelc@...
>