Re: Latin -idus as from dH- too => and the accent of Grk. *dHugh2ter

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
<miguelc@...> wrote:

>
> On Sun, 16 Mar 2008 12:43:37 -0000, "alexandru_mg3"
> <alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
>
> >===========================
> >Coming back to *dHugh2te'r
> >===========================
> >
> >I.
> > The Skt. kept the original accent : in dhuhita'r unchanged
> > BUT shows us the aspiration of g > gH > h
> >
> >II. The Greek on the other side has changed the accent position in
> >an 'unusual' way : tHuga'te:r (-> I said 'un-usual' because in

pate':r

> >the original accent remains unchanged)
> >
> >So I don't see any other cause for the change of the accent

position in

> >Greek tHuga'te:r BUT the Same Aspiration of g => *dHu-gHV(h2)-
> >trigerred by the vocalzied laryngeal => this aspiration atracted

next

> >the accent from the next syllable
>
> The accent in Greek was retracted to the _first_ syllable,
> under the influence of the vocative (thúgater), or the word
> for mother (mé:te:r), or both.
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> miguelc@...
>

So:
1. "OR-1" or
2. "OR-2" or
3. "OR-BOTH"?
Really? How are you so sure ?

Why not also
4. "OR-3"
5. all "OR-ALL-THREE"
n. ... "OR-n"

So the ancient Greeks told you last night that the vocative was so
largely use for 'daughter'-s ? :)

And Only for 'daughter'-s ?

Marius