From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 55140
Date: 2008-03-14
----- Original Message -----
From: Patrick Ryan
Who is the scholar who uses it? and what does it mean?
Patrick
=================
I guess
the French tradition starting with Meillet
himself states that the morphology
of PIE had *e and *o (this is no surprise)
and states that besides the vowels
*i *e (with *a being allophonic of *e) *o *u
there is an unstressed vowel *°
which is *not* a reflex of laryngeals.
I think all the "continuators" of Meillet
and also Kurylowicz have that system.
Cf. L'apophonie en Indo-Européen
p166 : Les laryngales et le *° vocalique.
My point of view is that
Basically *° is allophonic of *e
which is primarily or secondarily stressed.
This *° surfaces as *a (or *i in sanscrit)
Arnaud
==================