On Fri, 7 Mar 2008 13:23:41 -0800 (PST), Rick McCallister
<
gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
>Does this have to do with the east/west division in
>Catalan?
>If so, what's the basis for this division?
>Is it Castillian influence to the west? Pyrenees
>influence to the east? Occitan influence to the east?
>A combination of all three? Something else?
I don't have the information on the dialect distribution at
hand right now. I know that the (East/Central Catalan:
Girona, Barcelona) norm is [pObbl&], with a geminate stop.
In Southern West Catalan (a.k.a Valencian) what I've heard
most is [pOBle], with a continuant (as in <pobre> [poBre]).
In Tàrrega (Lleida), where my mother's from, the only
pronunciation I've ever heard is [pOple]. Possibly, this is
influence from the Eastern/Barcelonese norm, as can be seen
in other cases (e.g. the pronunciation of final -a as [E]
instead of [a], under the influence of normative [&]; or the
gradual loss of the article <lo> in favour of standard
<el>).
Just found this on the web:
http://www.economicexpert.com/a/Catalan:dialect:examples.htm
All the South-Western samples have <poble> (presumably
[pOBle]), the Eastern examples have [pObbl&].
Note especially the presence of Kluge's law in Mallorcan:
<dobbés> (i.e. [dubbés]) for <doblers> "money".
>--- Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <miguelc@...> wrote:
>. . .
>>
>> Gemination before a resonant is quite common. A good
>> example
>> is Catalan <poble>, <segle>, pronounced /pobble/,
>> /seggle/
>> (or /pople/, /sekle/).
> . . .
>
>
>
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=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
miguelc@...