From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 54667
Date: 2008-03-04
----- Original Message -----
From: Joao S. Lopes
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Tuesday, March 04, 2008 9:06 PM
Subject: Res: Res: [tied] Swiftness of Indra
-nr- in Sanskrit > -ndr- ? I think it doesn't occurs regularly, cf.
*h2ner-/*h2nr- > ever nr-, never -ndr- (opposite to Greek, where nr gives
ndr, cf. andros)
But this epenthetical -d- is possible if the word is not IE.
Indra < *Inra ?
=========
Hourri shows the d is -t?-
otherwise it would be written intara in Hourri
we have indara ?int?ara
Why should the epenthesis be glottalized ?
it does not make sense.
A.
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