Re: Res: [tied] Swiftness of Indra

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh
> <gknysh@...> wrote:
> >
> >
> > --- "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...> wrote:
> >
> > > Intara = Indara (-sh) in Mitanni?
> > >
> > > If there is *yNdro, there should be also a
> *yNdno- ?
> >
> >
> > ****GK: Note BTW that Lubotsky and Witzel consider
> > "Indra" to be an IIr borrowing from the BMAC
> language,
> > with no PIE roots. Cf. e.g. Lubotsky's "THe
> > Indo-Iranian substratum" in the 2001
> Carpelan-Parpola
> > et al. volume 'Early contacts between Uralic and
> > Indo-European'****
> >
>
>

http://www.ieed.nl/lubotsky/pdf/Indo-Iranian%20substratum.pdf

>
> Which means some of the evidence for IIr. presence
> in Mitanni is
> evidence for BMAC presence.
>
>
> Torsten

****GK: At the link Torsten has kindly provided,
Lubotsky argues that while semantically "Slavic
*jendr(&) 'strong, fresh' seems plausible, "the
primary meaning in Slavic is clearly 'pit','kernel'"
And he reiterates his earlier point about a wrong
vocalization in Sanskrit,for if Indra "were an IE
formation from *(H)indro-, we expect IIr **i(,}adra-
".***

>
>
>

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