Re: Indo-Aryans outside of India

I'm just tossing out a vague possibility, not a dogma
and I can accept corrections. The exile solution is
far-fetched but it was the only alternative that came
to mind

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>
> > > > For Hellenistic times, Oleg N. Trubachev
> (1999;
> > > > elaborating on a hypothesis by Kretschmer
> 1944)
> > > > suggests that there were Indo-Aryan speakers
> in the
> > > > Pontic steppe. The Maeotes and the Sindes, the
> latter
> > > > also known as "Indoi" and described by
> Hesychius as an
> > > > "an Indian people".[7]
> > >
> > > Oops! If the presence of Indo-Aryan type words
> in the Pontic
> > > steppe is proof positive that the Indo-Aryans
> came to India
> > > from there, and not the logically possible other
> way round, how
> > > come Hesychius calls the peoples in the Pontic
> steppe, who use
> > > those words, 'Indian'? Because some of their
> relatives in the past
> > > had gone to India? Or...?
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
> >
> > By Hesychius's time, Greeks et al. knew about
> India
> > and would have been able to associate a
> > Sanskrit-sounding language with India.
> > The other alternative I can think of is if the
> > Persians exiled a group of Indians there but I
> suppose
> > there would have been a record of that.
>
>
> Fever save. Just leaves a hunch that if the bad guy
> had attempted a
> similar solution, it would be deemed unconvincing.
>
>
> Torsten
>
>
>
>

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