Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

At 9:50:04 PM on Friday, February 15, 2008, mkelkar2003
wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Francesco Brighenti"
> <frabrig@...> wrote:

>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003"
>> <swatimkelkar@> wrote:

>>> Hock's (1996) work summarized and quoted by Kazanas
>>> (2002)

[...]

>> Since you continue to cite this single passage from H.H.
>> Hock's article as if that author considered the AMT and
>> the OIT equally legitimate, I will quote the conclusions
>> of that same article, which I have here on my desk:

>> "Neither the 'Sanskrit-origin' variant [S.S. Misra's
>> theory positing that Vedic Sanskrit represents PIE] nor
>> the 'PIE in India' variant, thus, turns out to provide
>> credible support for the 'Out-of-India'
>> hypothesis.Rather, the linguistic evidence still favors
>> the prevailing Indo-Europeanist perspective that the
>> speakers of Indo- Aryan migrated into India."

> I do not want to know what you have on your desk or under
> it. [...]

Since it proves that either you or Kazanas (or both) have
misrepresented Hock, this is not really surprising.

I agree with Piotr: you're beating a dead horse to no useful
purpose. One substantial post was even mostly copied
verbatim from a post that you made two years ago. I am
therefore officially declaring this a dead horse and a
closed thread. In accordance with the rules, 'any posters
who want to post their final thoughts on it may do so within
24 hours'.

Brian M. Scott
Moderator