Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

----- Original Message -----
From: "mkelkar2003" <swatimkelkar@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, February 15, 2008 1:01 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?


--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:
>
> Mr. Kelkar:
>
> I am not dead set on rejecting your point of view but I have some
problems
> with it:
>
> why, if PIE developed in India, do we not see it in Southern India
until
> relatively late;

Southern India still speaks languages classified as Dravidian.

>
> and
>
> I also have a hard time visualizing two major language groups,
Dravidian and
> PIE, percolating side by side without one swallowing the other.
>
>
> Patrick

Indian has six major language families. The OIT is using only NW India
and Pak as the IE homeland. Drying up of the Sarasvati river around
1900 BCE shifted the focus of the Vedic civilization to the Ganga Valley.

M. Kelkar

<snip>

Six 'major'? Are you not merely being courteous?

Well, I doubt that I am going to take a position on this since ita eventual
answer is not a large factor in what I am doing but I would like to
understand your think.

Around 3000 B.C., where in India were the Dravidian and PIE-speaking peoples
located?


Patrick