Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 53335
Date: 2008-02-15

On 2008-02-15 20:16, mkelkar2003 wrote:

> That is not my position. Rig Veda is a sacred text to me. But it does
> not support either the OIT or the AIT. I have no intention of leaving
> this list. A trained Indo-European linguist H. H. Hock has been quoted
> as saying that PIE could have been aprori be spoken in India.

It could have been spoken anywhere -- in Patagonia, Ireland or South
Africa -- if a sensible scenario of linguistic dispersal from such a
homeland could be proposed. You present the problem of IE origins as if
there were two competing theories: (1) PIE originated in India; (2) PIE
originated somewhere else. Why not the Out-of-Ireland Theory vs. the
Gaelic Invasion Theory (GIT)? In fact, the AIT and the OIT are not even
mutually antithetic. AIT is _not_ about the origin of PIE at all, but
about the origin of the Indo-Aryan languages -- one of about a dozen
branches of the IE family. From a general IE perspective it's a
peripheral problem, not "the heart of the matter". It's all been said
here before, more than once, and I don't think whipping this dead horse
again serves any useful purpose.

Piotr