Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

From: mkelkar2003
Message: 53321
Date: 2008-02-15

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:
>
> At 12:46:01 AM on Friday, February 15, 2008, mkelkar2003
> wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> >> Why do you waste our time (and yours) with these repeated
> >> attempts to find *linguistic* support for your
> >> ideological axioms when you clearly don't believe that
> >> linguistic evidence is worth a damn? If it's worthless,
> >> it's just as worthless when (you think that) it says what
> >> you want to hear as when it doesn't.
>
> > Acutally, I am not saying linguistic evidence is
> > worthless, [...]
>
> You don't have to say it in so many words: it's quite
> obvious that this is what you really believe. You use your
> ill-understood snippets only as weapons of debate, not out
> of any interest in linguistics, and you value them only
> insofar as they serve your intellectual cause.
>
> Brian

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glottochronology

How is the "Indo-Aryan" invasion, transhumance (Witzel 2003, very
interesting word indded!), migration, trickling a fact if it could
have happend any where between 4500 BCE to 1500 BCE and the
transhumans could have come from anywhere from Turkey to Russian
Steppes?

M. Kelkar

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