Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

Re Dravidian: on Wikipedia, I've read that its
speakers travel from north to south --there is some
substrate in S. Dravidian. And in the Sindhi article
on Wikipedia, that Sindhi has Dravidian substrate.
I read in Witzel that Dravidian only shows up in the
later books.
So, would it be logical to surmise that the
Indo-Aryans ran into Dravidian somewhere around the
lower to midddle Indus?


--- Francesco Brighenti <frabrig@...> wrote:

>
>
>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...>
> wrote:
>
> > So you [, Kelkar, are] basically saying that
> Dravidian is from
> > Central Asia and they went all the way through
> > Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did
> they
> > do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in
> BMAC?
> > Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> > deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?
>
> A Dravidian substrate in Old Indo-Aryan can be only
> detected
> starting from the later books of the R.gveda
> (generally dated to the
> last centuries of the 2nd mill. BCE), which were
> composed, like the
> entire R.gveda, in NW India/N Pakistan.
>
> There are also scholars, such as the Dravidianist F.
> Southworth, who
> have in the past hypothesized that Dravidian may
> have influenced the
> still unified Indo-Iranian languages somewhere in E
> Iran/ S Central
> Asia, but this is far from being proved (and I think
> that the same
> professor has by now abandoned this hypothesis).
>
> Regards,
> Francesco
>
>

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