--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...>
wrote:
> So you [, Kelkar, are] basically saying that Dravidian is from
> Central Asia and they went all the way through
> Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did they
> do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in BMAC?
> Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?
A Dravidian substrate in Old Indo-Aryan can be only detected
starting from the later books of the R.gveda (generally dated to the
last centuries of the 2nd mill. BCE), which were composed, like the
entire R.gveda, in NW India/N Pakistan.
There are also scholars, such as the Dravidianist F. Southworth, who
have in the past hypothesized that Dravidian may have influenced the
still unified Indo-Iranian languages somewhere in E Iran/ S Central
Asia, but this is far from being proved (and I think that the same
professor has by now abandoned this hypothesis).
Regards,
Francesco