From: mkelkar2003
Message: 53265
Date: 2008-02-15
>I have read Witzel in a lot of detail and I am quite familiar with the
> The inconvenient truth here, as our colleagues have
> pointed out and you have failed to grasp is that many
> of these loan words can only have come from Indo-Aryan
> or Indo-Iranian. There may well have been an
> Indo-Uralic language but you're just flinging red
> herrings. Have you even bothered to read Witzel? If
> not, then you are willfully ignorant. His stuff is on
> the web --we're not talking about some schmuck who
> hawks his xeroxed manuscripts from some dank office in
> Chootistan.
>____________________________________________________________________________________
>
> --- mkelkar2003 <swatimkelkar@...> wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> > <gabaroo6958@> wrote:
> > >
> > > So you're basically saying that Dravidian is from
> > > Central Asia and they went all the way through
> > > Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did
> > they
> > > do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in
> > BMAC?
> > > Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> > > deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?
> >
> > BMAC does not have traces of either Dravidian,
> > Uralic or Indo-Iranian
> > See Lamberg-Karlovsky IIr 2005.pdf) in the files
> > section.
> > Burushki languages of Pakistan has been classified
> > as Dravidian.
> > Witzel is only focussing on a narrow aspect of inter
> > familial contact.
> > The hypothesis of Indo-Uralic family eliminates the
> > necessity of
> > borrowing from Uralic to IE.
> >
> > M. Kelkar
> >
> >
> >
> > >
> > >
> >
>
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> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
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