Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

The inconvenient truth here, as our colleagues have
pointed out and you have failed to grasp is that many
of these loan words can only have come from Indo-Aryan
or Indo-Iranian. There may well have been an
Indo-Uralic language but you're just flinging red
herrings. Have you even bothered to read Witzel? If
not, then you are willfully ignorant. His stuff is on
the web --we're not talking about some schmuck who
hawks his xeroxed manuscripts from some dank office in
Chootistan.


--- mkelkar2003 <swatimkelkar@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
> >
> > So you're basically saying that Dravidian is from
> > Central Asia and they went all the way through
> > Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did
> they
> > do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in
> BMAC?
> > Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> > deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?
>
> BMAC does not have traces of either Dravidian,
> Uralic or Indo-Iranian
> See Lamberg-Karlovsky IIr 2005.pdf) in the files
> section.
> Burushki languages of Pakistan has been classified
> as Dravidian.
> Witzel is only focussing on a narrow aspect of inter
> familial contact.
> The hypothesis of Indo-Uralic family eliminates the
> necessity of
> borrowing from Uralic to IE.
>
> M. Kelkar
>
>
>
> >
> >
>

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>
>

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