Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:

>
> So you're basically saying that Dravidian is from
> Central Asia and they went all the way through
> Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did they
> do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in BMAC?
> Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?

BMAC does not have traces of either Dravidian, Uralic or Indo-Iranian
See Lamberg-Karlovsky IIr 2005.pdf) in the files section.
Burushki languages of Pakistan has been classified as Dravidian.
Witzel is only focussing on a narrow aspect of inter familial contact.
The hypothesis of Indo-Uralic family eliminates the necessity of
borrowing from Uralic to IE.

M. Kelkar

>
>

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