From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 52551
Date: 2008-02-09
> From: "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...>Not really. Torsten will correct me if I'm wrong, but it
>>>>> The word started out as *gWa-. When a glottal stop was
>>>>> added, it lengthened and preserved the earliest vowel
>>>>> quality -> *gWa:- (*gWaH{2}-). Without lengthening,
>>>>> the vowel reverted to the vowel of an stress-accented
>>>>> root syllable -> *gWé- to which -*y could be added,
>>>>> producing *gWéy-, 'live'; rather than your decomposed
>>>>> answer, just add -*m to it and -> *gWem-.
>>>> Nope. AFAIK the ablaut vowel was PPIE (=
>>>> proto-proto-IE) /a/. it became /e/, /o/ or zero, but
>>>> stayed /a/ before /x/.
>>> What do you mean by Ablaut vowel in PPIE?
>> *The* ablaut vowel in PPIE.
> Cryptic answers may satisfy your sense of humor but they
> hardly advance the discussion.
> Now let us review what you are saying:
> 1) let us use *A for the Ablautvokal
> 2) in PPIE, A* was /a/
> 3) in PIE, A* was /e/, /o/, /Ø/
> a) except when A* was /a/
> It is proper to call *A in PIE the Ablautvokal _because_
> it undergoes vowel gradation: Ablaut.
> The *A in PPIE does _not_ undergo vowel gradation (Ablaut)
> but we still call it the Ablautvokal.
> For what earthly reason? since it does not undergo Ablaut.
> See my little problem?
>>>> Piotr wants to assume a third variant in -*w -? *gWew-;*Somehow* related. OIc <koningr> and Finn. <kuningas> are
>>>> from my perspective, the existence of this variant in
>>>> Proto-Afrasian leads to a probability that it existed
>>>> in PIE, and so his case is strengthened.
>> From my perspective the variation of the last consonant
>> in both the Semitic and the IE root tells me they're
>> somehow related. Thus they are probably loans.
> More oracular contradictions?
> Are the PIE and PA forms "related"?
> Or are they the result of loan?
> "OR" normally is exclsionary, is it not?Depends on context: in mathematics the default is inclusive