Re: PS Emphatics

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<3> does _not_ exist in the rest of PA (Proto-Afrasian).

If Loprieno thinks it does, quote him. Do not put it in your own words
because you get it all wrong.
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I thought you had the book :
Page 31 :
Among the liquids, the original opposition between nasal *n, lateral *l and
vibrant *r underwent a profound reorganization, not yet fully understood
in its specific details, in which a role was also played by dialectal
variants.
PA *n and r were kept as Egyptian /n/ and /R/ - the latter being the phoneme
conventionally transcribed 3 by Egyptologists [...]

Looks clear to me, even though I am not a native speaker of English.

Arnaud
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There are _no_ glottalized consonants in Egyptian; at an early date, there
was [?] and [h].

Glottalized consonants were voiced by the time we get to Afrasian, the
parent of Egyptian.
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Loprieno p43 :
Indirect evidence of the ejective ( My comment = glottalized) character of
voiceless
stops in Bohairic is also provided by a late medieval Arabic version of
the apopththegmata PAtrum in Coptic script. [...] Coptic sioout > Arabic
asyût?

My comment Coptic -t- > Arabic t?
Looks clear to me, even though I am not a native speaker of English. (Bis)

Arnaud
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***
Your suggestion, as usual, is of no value. PIE does not have vocalic
"schemes" as do Semitic languages.
Patrick
***
It did not !?
What is -o- in *dh_H1 ? sacer-do-tal
What is o_â in Greek tomâ ?

Some languages still make a use of vocalic schemes :
What is Modern English drInk drAnk drUnk ?

PIE did and some languages still do.

I suppose you will try to explain
that apophony is not vocalic schemes...

Arnaud
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