Re: PS Emphatics

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:

> From: Arnau Fournet.arnaud wrote:

>> Patrick Ryan wrote:

>>> Egyptian <3> _never_ appears as /s/ in any related language.

> Arnaud Fournet wrote:
>> Why don't you look for one example ?
>> I give you the "recipe" :
>> - initials in Egyptian must be either : d or q, glottalized.
>> - 3 is *s turned into *s?, because of glottalic propagation.
>> A root like t?_s or t?_sh or q_s or q_sh.

> Looking for _ONE_ example is only the beginning of the work. Until

you have

> found that repeated several times, you _should_ have nothing to talk

about.

> There are _no_ glottalized consonants in Egyptian; at an early date,

there

> was [?] and [h].

So, Arnaud, what do you mean by "t?_s"?

> Glottalized consonants were voiced by the time we get to Afrasian, the
> parent of Egyptian.

Do you, Patrick, mean Proto-Nostratic (PN) 'glottalised consonants'?
Do we need to ask how you identify them? I fear that you and Arnaud
are not communicating.

> Glottalized emphatics are a modern dialectal variation; the

emphatics were

> first retroflex, and, as Richard, I think, pointed out, pharyngalized.

I did not identify any progression from pharyngealisation to
glottalisation. 'Glottalisation' seems to be the most widespread AA
realisation, if you count implosives and ejectives as glottalised.

Can one have retroflex velars?

To add to the confusion, Bomhard derives these consonants from PN
glottalised consonants.

Richard.