From: tgpedersen
Message: 52049
Date: 2008-01-29
>What is it?
> At 6:12:00 PM on Monday, January 28, 2008, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
> > <BMScott@> wrote:
>
> >> At 1:40:07 PM on Monday, January 28, 2008, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> >>> BTW veklu > vieux, so ve(s)p- > **vie(s)p-? Not so, so
> >>> there must have been two v-sounds: v and w, in Western
> >>> Romance.
>
> >> Latin /w/ had already become /B/ by the time the Gmc. word
> >> was borrowed; Gmc. /w-/ hardened to OFr /gw-/, while LLat.
> >> /B/ > OFr /v/.
>
> > You don't need the detour via /B/ if Germanic /w/ was
> > borrowed directly.
>
> What are you trying to say here? The evidence for
> development of Lat. /w/ to LLat. /B/ is extremely clear,
> and what I said about Gmc. /w-/I had no problem understanding what you said.
> is that it *was* borrowed directly -- as /gw-/.Except in Northern France?